Pharmacology of Anesthetic Drugs MCQs for Anesthesia Technician | Prometric Exam

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Pharmacology of Anesthetic Drugs MCQs for Anesthesia Technician

Introduction

Pharmacology of Anesthetic Drugs MCQs for Anesthesia Technician are essential for Prometric exam success. Anesthesia technicians must understand induction agents, muscle relaxants, general anesthesia techniques, and regional anesthesia including spinal and epidural anesthesia. These MCQs are designed in simple English with exam-focused content to improve knowledge, accuracy, and confidence for the Prometric exam.

Practicing Pharmacology of Anesthetic Drugs MCQs for Anesthesia Technician will improve exam accuracy, confidence, and clinical understanding.

Q1. Which drug is commonly used for induction of general anesthesia?

A. Propofol
B. Lidocaine
C. Atropine
D. Neostigmine

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Propofol

Explanation: Propofol is a fast-acting IV induction agent.

Q2. Which inhalational agent is commonly used for maintenance of anesthesia?

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Sevoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Isoflurane

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Sevoflurane

Explanation: Sevoflurane is widely used due to rapid onset and recovery.

Q3. Which drug is a depolarizing muscle relaxant?

A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Succinylcholine
D. Atracurium

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Succinylcholine

Explanation: Succinylcholine causes depolarization at the neuromuscular junction.

Q4. Which drug is used to reverse non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?

A. Atropine
B. Neostigmine
C. Glycopyrrolate
D. Midazolam

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Neostigmine

Explanation: Neostigmine increases acetylcholine at NMJ.

Q5. Which agent is commonly used for rapid sequence induction?

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopentone
D. Etomidate

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Thiopentone

Explanation: Thiopentone has rapid onset for induction.

Q6. Which muscle relaxant is commonly used for short procedures?

A. Pancuronium
B. Succinylcholine
C. Vecuronium
D. Cisatracurium

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Succinylcholine

Explanation: It has rapid onset and short duration.

Q7. Which drug provides both anesthesia and analgesia?

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Midazolam
D. Thiopentone

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ketamine

Explanation: Ketamine produces dissociative anesthesia.

Q8. Which inhalational agent causes least airway irritation?

A. Isoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Sevoflurane

Explanation: Sevoflurane is smooth and non-irritating.

Q9. Which anesthetic drug causes bronchodilation?

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Midazolam
D. Etomidate

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ketamine

Explanation: Ketamine is useful in asthmatic patients.

Q10. Which muscle relaxant undergoes Hofmann elimination?

A. Rocuronium
B. Atracurium
C. Pancuronium
D. Vecuronium

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Atracurium

Explanation: Atracurium is organ-independent metabolism.

Q11. Which drug is commonly used for spinal anesthesia?

A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Procaine

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Bupivacaine

Explanation: Bupivacaine provides long duration block.

Q12. Spinal anesthesia is given in which space?

A. Epidural space
B. Subarachnoid space
C. Intramuscular space
D. Pleural space

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Subarachnoid space

Explanation: Drug is injected into CSF.

Q13. Which needle is used for epidural anesthesia?

A. Quincke needle
B. Tuohy needle
C. IV cannula
D. Spinal needle

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Tuohy needle

Explanation: Tuohy needle reduces dural puncture risk.

Q14. Which complication is common after spinal anesthesia?

A. Hypertension
B. Post-dural puncture headache
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Bronchospasm

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Post-dural puncture headache

Explanation: Caused by CSF leakage.

Q15. Which block is used for upper limb surgery?

A. Femoral nerve block
B. Sciatic nerve block
C. Brachial plexus block
D. Lumbar plexus block

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Brachial plexus block

Explanation: Supplies upper limb anesthesia.

Q16. Which drug is used as a premedication anticholinergic?

A. Atropine
B. Fentanyl
C. Propofol
D. Ketamine

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Atropine

Explanation: Reduces secretions and vagal response.

Q17. Which opioid is commonly used during general anesthesia?

A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Tramadol
D. Codeine

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Fentanyl

Explanation: Fentanyl is potent and fast acting.

Q18. Which muscle relaxant causes tachycardia?

A. Vecuronium
B. Atracurium
C. Pancuronium
D. Cisatracurium

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Pancuronium

Explanation: Pancuronium has vagolytic action.

Q19. Which inhalational agent is contraindicated in raised ICP?

A. Isoflurane
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Nitrous oxide

View Answer

Correct Answer: D. Nitrous oxide

Explanation: Increases intracranial pressure.

Q20. Which block is commonly used for cesarean section?

A. Epidural anesthesia
B. Spinal anesthesia
C. General anesthesia
D. Local infiltration

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Spinal anesthesia

Explanation: Provides rapid dense block.

Q21. Which induction agent is preferred in patients with cardiac instability?

A. Propofol
B. Thiopentone
C. Etomidate
D. Ketamine

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Etomidate

Explanation: Etomidate has minimal cardiovascular depression.

Q22. Which muscle relaxant has the shortest duration of action?

A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Succinylcholine

View Answer

Correct Answer: D. Succinylcholine

Explanation: It has rapid onset and very short duration.

Q23. Which anesthetic agent increases heart rate and blood pressure?

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopentone

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Ketamine

Explanation: Ketamine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system.

Q24. Which inhalational agent is least soluble in blood?

A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane

View Answer

Correct Answer: D. Desflurane

Explanation: Low blood-gas solubility causes rapid induction.

Q25. Which drug is commonly added to spinal anesthesia to prolong duration?

A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine
C. Midazolam
D. Neostigmine

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Epinephrine

Explanation: It reduces systemic absorption of local anesthetic.

Q26. Loss of resistance technique is used in which anesthesia?

A. Spinal anesthesia
B. Epidural anesthesia
C. General anesthesia
D. Local infiltration

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Epidural anesthesia

Explanation: It confirms entry into epidural space.

Q27. Which nerve block is used for lower limb surgery?

A. Brachial plexus block
B. Femoral nerve block
C. Cervical plexus block
D. Interscalene block

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Femoral nerve block

Explanation: Femoral nerve supplies the lower limb.

Q28. Which complication occurs due to sympathetic blockade in spinal anesthesia?

A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperthermia
D. Tachypnea

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Hypotension

Explanation: Vasodilation causes fall in blood pressure.

Q29. Which muscle relaxant is safest in renal failure?

A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Rocuronium

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Atracurium

Explanation: It undergoes Hofmann elimination.

Q30. Which opioid is commonly used in spinal anesthesia?

A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Tramadol
D. Pethidine

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Fentanyl

Explanation: Fentanyl provides fast spinal analgesia.

Q31. Which inhalational anesthetic is hepatotoxic?

A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane

View Answer

Correct Answer: D. Halothane

Explanation: Halothane can cause hepatic injury.

Q32. Which drug is used to prevent bradycardia during anesthesia?

A. Neostigmine
B. Atropine
C. Fentanyl
D. Midazolam

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Atropine

Explanation: Atropine blocks vagal effects.

Q33. Which block is used for shoulder surgery?

A. Femoral block
B. Interscalene block
C. Sciatic block
D. Lumbar plexus block

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Interscalene block

Explanation: Targets upper brachial plexus.

Q34. Which anesthetic agent causes respiratory depression?

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Etomidate
D. Nitrous oxide

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Propofol

Explanation: Propofol depresses respiratory drive.

Q35. Which nerve block is used for inguinal hernia surgery?

A. Ilioinguinal nerve block
B. Femoral nerve block
C. Sciatic nerve block
D. Cervical plexus block

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ilioinguinal nerve block

Explanation: Supplies the groin region.

Q36. Which anesthetic agent provides amnesia?

A. Midazolam
B. Morphine
C. Ketamine
D. Fentanyl

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Midazolam

Explanation: Benzodiazepines produce amnesia.

Q37. Which complication is associated with epidural anesthesia?

A. Epidural hematoma
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Bronchospasm

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Epidural hematoma

Explanation: Can cause spinal cord compression.

Q38. Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action?

A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Chloroprocaine

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Bupivacaine

Explanation: It provides prolonged anesthesia.

Q39. Which block is used for postoperative pain management?

A. Peripheral nerve block
B. General anesthesia
C. Sedation
D. Local infiltration only

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Peripheral nerve block

Explanation: Provides long-lasting pain relief.

Q40. Which inhalational agent supports rapid recovery?

A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Enflurane

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Desflurane

Explanation: Low solubility allows quick recovery.

Q41. Which muscle relaxant is intermediate acting?

A. Succinylcholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Doxacurium

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Vecuronium

Explanation: Vecuronium has intermediate duration.

Q42. Which anesthetic drug increases salivation?

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Midazolam
D. Etomidate

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Ketamine

Explanation: Ketamine increases secretions.

Q43. Which block is used for ankle surgery?

A. Popliteal block
B. Femoral block
C. Interscalene block
D. Lumbar block

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Popliteal block

Explanation: Targets distal sciatic nerve.

Q44. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated in epilepsy?

A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Enflurane
D. Isoflurane

View Answer

Correct Answer: C. Enflurane

Explanation: Enflurane can cause seizures.

Q45. Which nerve block is used for perineal surgery?

A. Pudendal nerve block
B. Femoral nerve block
C. Sciatic nerve block
D. Lumbar plexus block

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Pudendal nerve block

Explanation: Pudendal nerve supplies perineum.

Q46. Which anesthetic drug causes hypotension?

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Etomidate
D. Midazolam

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Propofol

Explanation: Causes vasodilation and hypotension.

Q47. Which regional anesthesia technique blocks nerve roots?

A. Epidural anesthesia
B. Local infiltration
C. General anesthesia
D. Sedation

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Epidural anesthesia

Explanation: Blocks spinal nerve roots.

Q48. Which opioid causes chest wall rigidity?

A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Tramadol
D. Codeine

View Answer

Correct Answer: B. Fentanyl

Explanation: High doses can cause rigidity.

Q49. Which local anesthetic has less cardiotoxicity than bupivacaine?

A. Ropivacaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Procaine
D. Cocaine

View Answer

Correct Answer: A. Ropivacaine

Explanation: Safer cardiac profile.

Q50. What is the main advantage of regional anesthesia?

A. Faster recovery
B. Better pain control
C. Less airway manipulation
D. All of the above

View Answer

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Regional anesthesia offers multiple benefits.

Conclusion

Pharmacology of Anesthetic Drugs MCQs for Anesthesia Technician are crucial for Prometric exam preparation. Understanding drug actions, anaesthesia techniques, and regional blocks improves clinical safety and exam performance. Regular practice of these MCQs helps build confidence and accuracy for real exam scenarios.

For complete details, visit our Anesthesia Technician Prometric Exam guide.